Outline how a single factor model gauges portfolio credit risk, correlation effects included.
The idea
In the single factor model each firm's standardised asset return is Ri = βi × M + √(1 − βi²) × ei. Here M is a common factor such as the state of the economy, and ei is an idiosyncratic shock. Both are standard normal, and the ei are independent of M and of each other. A firm defaults when Ri falls below a threshold, and that threshold is ki = N⁻¹(PDi). Conditional on M, defaults are independent, so each firm has CondPD = N((ki − βi × M) ÷ √(1 − βi²)). Averaging over M recovers the unconditional PD. The model needs one beta per firm instead of N(N − 1) ÷ 2 pairwise correlations. A bad outcome for M raises every firm's default probability at once. Common errors are flipping the sign of βi × M and omitting the square-root denominator.
Formulas
Asset return in the single factor model
Ri = βi × M + √(1 − βi²) × ei
- βi
- the firm's loading on the common factor
- M
- the common factor, standard normal
- ei
- the firm's idiosyncratic shock, standard normal and independent of M and of other firms' shocks
Ri is standardised, with variance βi² from the factor and 1 − βi² from the shock. Correlation between firms runs only through M.
Conditional default probability given the factor
CondPD = N((ki − βi × M) ÷ √(1 − βi²))
- N
- the standard normal cumulative distribution function
- ki
- the default threshold, N⁻¹ of the firm's PD
- βi
- the firm's loading on the common factor
- M
- the realised value of the common factor
A negative M raises the probability; flipping the sign of βi × M lowers it instead. Dividing by 1 − βi² rather than its square root is the other slip.
A practice question
In the single factor model R_i = beta_i x M + sqrt(1 - beta_i²) x e_i, which assumption is made about the idiosyncratic shocks e_i?
- They are correlated with M by an amount equal to beta_i.Why not: Beta_i is the loading on M; the idiosyncratic shock is assumed independent of M.
- They are correlated across firms in the same industry in proportion to their betas.Why not: Industry effects would require extra factors; the single factor model has none.
- They are standard normal and independent of M and of each other, so the common factor is the only source of correlation. - correct
- They have variance equal to beta_i².Why not: The factor part has variance beta_i²; the idiosyncratic part has variance 1 - beta_i².
Independence of the e_i from M and from each other makes all dependence between firms run through the factor, which is what makes conditional defaults independent.
A harder one
In a single factor model, a firm has beta = 0.5 and PD = 2% (threshold -2.054). If the common factor realises M = -2.0, the firm defaults when its idiosyncratic shock e is below a value closest to:
- -3.53Why not: Adds beta x M instead of subtracting it, giving (-2.054 - 1.0) / 0.866.
- -1.05Why not: Omits the division by sqrt(1 - beta²).
- -1.40Why not: Divides by 1 - beta² = 0.75 instead of by its square root.
- -1.22 - correct
Default occurs when beta M + sqrt(1 - beta²) e < k, so e < (k - beta M) / sqrt(1 - beta²) = (-2.054 + 1.0) / 0.866 = -1.22. A bad factor draw makes default more likely.
The hardest tier
A firm has PD = 1% and beta = 0.4 in a single factor model. In a one-in-a-hundred bad economy the factor is M = -2.326. Use these table values: N(-1.40) = 0.0808, N(-1.52) = 0.0643, N(-2.13) = 0.0166, N(-3.55) = 0.0002. The firm's conditional default probability is closest to:
- 0.02%Why not: Gets the sign of beta x M wrong, giving z = (-2.326 - 0.930) / 0.917 = -3.55.
- 8.1%Why not: Omits the division by sqrt(1 - beta²), giving z = -1.40.
- 1.7%Why not: Uses beta² = 0.16 as the loading and sqrt(1 - 0.16) as the denominator, giving z = -2.13.
- 6.4% - correct
z = (N^-1(0.01) - beta M) / sqrt(1 - beta²) = (-2.326 + 0.930) / 0.9165 = -1.52. N(-1.52) = 0.0643, so the default rate rises from 1% to about 6.4% in the bad state.
In the app: 6 practice questions on this outcome, spaced review that brings it back before you forget it.
Start free →More in Portfolio Credit Risk
- State what default correlation is for credit portfolios and compute it.
- Name the weaknesses of a credit portfolio framework built on correlation.
- Judge the consequences of correlation for a credit portfolio and the Credit VaR figure attached to it.
- State what beta is and use the single factor model to work out the asset return correlation for any two firms.
- Use the single factor model to estimate the joint default probability and the default correlation for any two credits.
- Describe a simulation of joint defaults as a way to calculate Credit VaR.
- Weigh up how granularity influences Credit VaR.