Explain how options, forwards, forward rate agreements (FRAs) and interest rate swaps are each handled when they are mapped.
The idea
Derivatives are mapped by decomposing them into positions in the primitive risk factors. An option is replaced by delta times the underlying position, which is the delta-normal approach. It is accurate for small moves but misses gamma. Delta-gamma or full revaluation is needed for large moves and for positions with near-zero net delta, such as a straddle. A forward to buy foreign currency is long the foreign spot exposure, long the foreign zero-coupon bond and short the domestic zero-coupon bond. A forward rate agreement 6x12 that pays fixed and receives floating is long a 6-month zero and short a 12-month zero of equal present value. A pay-fixed swap is short a fixed-rate bond and long a floating-rate note. The note carries only the rate risk up to its next reset date. A receive-fixed swap is the reverse. Both pay-fixed positions gain when rates rise and lose when they fall, because the zero or the fixed bond they are short falls in value as rates rise. Exam point: the sign on each leg decides whether the risks offset.
Formulas
Delta-normal VaR of an option position
VaR = z × σ × Δ × n × S
- z
- the standard normal quantile
- σ
- the volatility of the underlying's return over the horizon
- Δ
- the option delta, net across legs
- n
- the number of options
- S
- the underlying price
Small moves only. The exposure is delta times underlying value, not the premium; near-zero net delta, as in a straddle, badly understates risk.
A practice question
When an option position is mapped using the delta approach, it is represented as:
- a position in the underlying equal to the option's premium.Why not: Uses market value as the exposure instead of delta times the underlying notional.
- a position in the underlying asset equal to delta times the underlying notional. - correct
- a zero-coupon bond maturing on the option's expiry date.Why not: Treats the option as a bond; delta mapping works through the underlying risk factor.
- a position equal to the option's gamma times the underlying notional.Why not: Gamma is a second-order sensitivity; first-order mapping uses delta.
Delta-normal mapping replaces the option by delta x notional of the underlying, so the option's VaR is delta times the underlying's VaR. It is linear and so accurate only for small moves.
A harder one
A trader holds 20,000 call options on a stock priced at USD 80. Each option is worth USD 4.20 and has a delta of 0.55. The stock's daily volatility is 1.8 percent. The one-day 95 percent delta-normal VaR of the options is closest to:
- USD 47,400Why not: Treats the options as 20,000 shares, ignoring delta.
- USD 2,500Why not: Uses the option premium as the exposure instead of delta times the underlying value.
- USD 26,100 - correct
- USD 36,800Why not: Uses the 99 percent quantile 2.326 instead of the 95 percent quantile 1.645.
Delta-equivalent exposure = 0.55 x 20,000 x 80 = 880,000. VaR = 1.645 x 1.8% x 880,000 = 26,100. The option price is not the exposure; delta times underlying value is.
The hardest tier
A firm buys a 6x12 forward rate agreement on USD 10 million, which starts in 6 months and covers a further 6 months, paying the fixed rate and receiving floating. Rates use semiannual compounding and the 6-month zero rate is 4.0 percent. The FRA maps to a long 6-month zero and a short 12-month zero, each with a present value of USD 10 million / 1.02 = USD 9.80 million. One-day 95 percent VaR rates for the zeros are 0.15 percent (6-month) and 0.30 percent (12-month), with a correlation of 0.80. The VaR of the FRA is closest to:
- USD 19,700 - correct
- USD 44,100Why not: Adds the two stand-alone VaRs, ignoring that the long and short legs offset because they are highly correlated.
- USD 32,900Why not: Treats the two vertices as uncorrelated.
- USD 42,100Why not: Treats both legs as long exposures, missing that the 12-month leg is short.
Stand-alone VaRs: 9.804m x 0.15% = 14,706 and 9.804m x 0.30% = 29,412. With opposite signs, VaR = sqrt(14,706² + 29,412² - 2 x 0.8 x 14,706 x 29,412) = 19,700. An FRA is a spread position, so its risk is much lower than that of either leg.
In the app: 6 practice questions on this outcome, spaced review that brings it back before you forget it.
Start free →More in VaR Mapping
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- Explain why mapping reflects market-wide as well as position-specific risk, and quantify each for a portfolio given the underlying primitive risk factors.
- Tell apart the trio of techniques available for mapping bond portfolios.
- Summarise the way a bond portfolio gets expressed through a set of standard benchmark instruments.
- Show in what ways stress tests can draw on the mapping of risk factors.
- Show how VaR may be computed and used when measured against a performance benchmark.