Find the variance when two random variables are combined using weights.
The idea
Combine two random variables X and Y with weights a and b, and the variance of aX + bY is: Variance = a² × Var(X) + b² × Var(Y) + 2ab × Cov(X, Y). When you are given a correlation ρ and standard deviations σX and σY instead, use Covariance = ρ × σX × σY. The weights are squared on the variances but appear once, doubled, on the covariance, and their signs matter, so for the difference X − Y, with weights 1 and −1: Spread variance = Var(X) + Var(Y) − 2 × Cov(X, Y). If the variables are uncorrelated, the cross term vanishes and the variances simply add, even when you subtract. The standard deviation is the square root of the variance. A positive correlation lowers the benefit of diversification and, in a long-short position, makes the spread less volatile. Common errors are omitting the 2, not squaring the weights and ignoring the sign of the covariance term.
Formulas
Variance of a weighted combination of two variables
Var(aX + bY) = a² × Var(X) + b² × Var(Y) + 2 × a × b × Cov(X, Y)
- a
- the weight on X
- b
- the weight on Y
- Var(X)
- the variance of X
- Var(Y)
- the variance of Y
- Cov(X, Y)
- the covariance, ρ × σX × σY
Weights are squared on the variances but appear once, doubled, on the covariance. A short position gives a negative weight, which flips the sign of the cross term.
A practice question
For random variables X and Y and constants a and b, which expression gives Var(aX + bY)?
- a² Var(X) + b² Var(Y)Why not: Omits the covariance term, which is correct only when X and Y are uncorrelated.
- a Var(X) + b Var(Y) + 2ab Cov(X, Y)Why not: Does not square the weights on the variances; variance scales with the square of a constant.
- a² Var(X) + b² Var(Y) + ab Cov(X, Y)Why not: Drops the factor 2 on the cross term; the covariance appears twice in the expansion of (aX + bY)².
- a² Var(X) + b² Var(Y) + 2ab Cov(X, Y) - correct
Expanding the variance of aX + bY gives a² Var(X) + b² Var(Y) + 2ab Cov(X, Y). The cross term is what captures diversification: it can reduce or increase the combined variance.
A harder one
A portfolio is 60 percent in asset X (volatility 20 percent) and 40 percent in asset Y (volatility 10 percent). The correlation of the returns is 0.30. What is the portfolio volatility?
- 16.00 percentWhy not: Takes the weighted average of the two volatilities, which holds only if the correlation is +1.
- 13.74 percent - correct
- 12.65 percentWhy not: Leaves out the covariance term 2 w1 w2 rho sigma1 sigma2, i.e. assumes zero correlation.
- 1.888 percentWhy not: Reports the portfolio variance (0.01888) as a percentage rather than taking the square root.
Variance = 0.6²(0.04) + 0.4²(0.01) + 2(0.6)(0.4)(0.30)(0.20)(0.10) = 0.0144 + 0.0016 + 0.00288 = 0.01888. Volatility = sqrt(0.01888) = 13.74 percent.
The hardest tier
A trader is long one unit of asset X and short one unit of asset Y, so the P&L per unit is X - Y. The volatilities are 15 percent for X and 12 percent for Y, with correlation 0.80. What is the volatility of the spread X - Y?
- 25.63 percentWhy not: Adds the covariance term instead of subtracting it; with weights +1 and -1 the cross term is -2 Cov.
- 19.21 percentWhy not: Ignores the correlation entirely, which treats X and Y as uncorrelated.
- 9.00 percent - correct
- 3.00 percentWhy not: Subtracts the two volatilities, which is exact only when the correlation is +1; here the correlation is 0.80 and the full variance formula is needed.
Var(X - Y) = 0.15² + 0.12² - 2(0.80)(0.15)(0.12) = 0.0225 + 0.0144 - 0.0288 = 0.0081. Volatility = 9.00 percent. A high positive correlation makes the long-short spread much less volatile than either leg.
In the app: 6 practice questions on this outcome, spaced review that brings it back before you forget it.
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